GATE 2018 CS Set 3

Answer: A

Explanation:

The right choice is meandering. Because meandering means "proceeding in a convoluted or undirected fashion" and all other options contradicts the meaning of organized (ordered).

Answer: D

Explanation:

Area of square = πr²
i.e.
     a² = d
Side of the square (a) = √d
Diagonal of the square = √(a² + a²) = √((√d)² + (√d)²) = √(d + d) = √(2d)
Diameter of the circle = Diagonal of the square = √(2d)
Radius of the circle = √(2d) / 2

Now,
Area of the circle = πr²
= π* (√(√(2d) / 2)²
= π* 2*d / 2* 2
= 1/2)πd

Answer: C

Explanation:

Let the number be N.

ATQ,

N divided by 20, 42 or 76 gives the remainder 7 in each case. In other words, (N-7) is completely divisible by the given number 20, 42 & 76.

So, we need to calculate the least common multiple of 20, 42, 76.

i.e.

(?-7) = ???(20,42,76)

LCM of 20 = 2 * 2 *5
LCM of 42 = 2 * 3 * 7
LCM of 76 = 2 * 2 * 19
(20,42,76) = 2 * 2 * 5 * 3 * 7 * 19 => 7980

Hence,
=> (?-7) = 7980
=> N = 7980 + 7
=> N = 7987

Answer: B

Explanation:

2*6=12, 12*5=60, 60*4=240, 240*3=720, 720*2=1440, 1440*1=1440, 1440*0

The series begins with 2. Multiply the first term with 6 and get second term 12. Multiply the second term with 5 and get third term 60. Multiply the third term with 4 and get fourth term 340. Multiply the fourth term with 3 and get fifth term 720. Multiply the fifth term with 2 and get fifth term 1440. Multiply the sixth term with 1 and get 1440 again. In last we multiply it with 0 and get zero(0).

Answer: B

Explanation:

Let no. of senior male be x and female be y
x+y = 300
so, y = 300 - x
Total money paid by philanthropist = 750 * 8/9 * x + 1000 * 2/3 * (300 - x)
= 6000x/9 + 2 * 10⁵ - 2000x/3
= 2000x/3 - 2000x/3 + 2 * 10⁵
= 2*10⁵
= 200000

Answer: C

Given,

P^-x = 1/q
q^--y- = 1/r
r^--z- = 1/p

Now, Take log on both the side, we get

x log p = log q

=> x = log q / log p

y log q = log r

=> y = log r / log q

z log r = log p

=> z = log p / log r

So, xyz = log q / log p * log r / log q * log p / log r = 1

Therefore option (C) will be the right answer.

Answer: B

Explanation:

Suppose 100 people are invited in a party.

Given,
men invited = 60, and
women invited = 40
Therefore ATQ,
During the party only 80 people came, and all women attended => 80
               = > 40 + men

Therefore, men = 40
Hence,
The ratio of males to females = 1:1

Answer: A

Explanation:

According to the triangle property that "the exterior angle of a triangle is the sum of the two opposite interior angle."

Therefore, ∠z = ∠x + ∠y ----->1
Similarly,
    ∠y = ∠a + ∠b ------->2
By subsituting 2 in 1 we get,
   ∠Z = ∠x + ∠a + ∠b.
Now, ∠Z = ∠BCD
     ∠b = ∠BAD.
∠BCD - ∠BAD = ∠Z - ∠b
       = ∠x + ∠a + ∠b - ∠b
       = ∠x + ∠a
       = ∠DEC + ∠BFC

Answer: C

Explanation:

The probability of each options are:
A = P(3G,4R) = 7C₃ * (4/6)³(2/6)⁴
B = P(4G,3R) = 7C₄ * (4/6)⁴(2/6)³
C = P(5G,2R) = 7C₅ * (4/6)⁵(2/6)²
D = P(6G,1R) = 7C₆ * (4/6)⁶(2/6)¹

From the above we can easily eliminate the option A which has more number of red faces.

C/B=7C₅ / 7C₄ * 4/6 * 6/2 = 3/5 * 2 > 1.

So, C>B.

C/D = 7C₅ / 7C₆ * 6/4 * 2/6 = 21/7 * 0.5 > 1.

So, C>D.
Hence, C is the most favourable outcome.