Software Engineering MCQs
In this article, we are going to discuss the most commonly asked multiple-choice questions related to Software Engineering.
The primary purpose of writing this article is to target competitive exams and interviews. Here, we will cover all the frequently asked Software Engineering questions with the correct choice of answer among various options.
1) What is the first step in the software development lifecycle?
Answer: d) Preliminary Investigation and Analysis
Explanation: The first phase of the software development life cycle is the requirement analysis, in which the software engineer analyzes the software requirement based on the user's outlook.
2) What does the study of an existing system refer to?
Answer: c) System Analysis
Explanation: The study of an existing system refers to system analysis.
3) Which of the following is involved in the system planning and designing phase of the Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC)?
Answer: d) All of the above
4) What does RAD stand for?
Answer: b) Rapid Application Development
Explanation: RAD stands for Rapid Application Development is categorized as an agile development method, which is meant to accomplish a quick turnaround and high-end outcomes.
5) Which of the following prototypes does not associated with Prototyping Model?
Answer: d) Diagonal Prototype
Explanation: There is nothing as such called Diagonal Prototype; however, the rest other options do make sense.
6) The major drawback of RAD model is __________.
Answer: d) Both (a) & (c)
Explanation: The client may create an unrealistic product vision, which may result in a team over or under-develop functionality. Besides, it is not easy to hire highly specialized & skilled developers/designers.
7) Which of the following does not relate to Evolutionary Process Model?
Answer: d) All of the above
Explanation: The evolutionary process model is designed for rapid software development, which starts from scratch with raw specifications and modifies as per the user requirement.
8) What is the major drawback of the Spiral Model?
Answer: b) Doesn't work well for smaller projects
Explanation: A spiral model is an incremental approach, which is formed as a combination of the waterfall model and prototyping model. The major drawbacks of the Spiral model are as follows:
9) Model selection is based on __________.
Answer: d) All of the above
Explanation: Model selection is based on requirements, a team of developers, users as well as the risk involved in developing a project.
10) Which of the following option is correct?
Answer: c) Both RAD & Prototyping Model facilitates reusability of components
11) Which of the following models doesn't necessitate defining requirements at the earliest in the lifecycle?
Answer: c) Spiral & Prototyping
Explanation: In the Prototyping model, the first phase is the requirement analysis phase, which involves Brainstorming, QFD, and FAST, whereas the Spiral model encompasses customer communication activities such as defining objectives.
12) When the user participation isn't involved, which of the following models will not result in the desired output?
Answer: b) Prototyping & RAD
Explanation: The Prototyping model necessitates user participation as when a prototype is created or designed, whereas, in the case of RAD, user participation is required in all four phases.
13) Which of the following model will be preferred by a company that is planning to deploy an advanced version of the existing software in the market?
Answer: d) Both (b) and (c)
14) Arrange the following activities for making a software product by utilizing 4GT.
I. Design strategy
II. Transformation into product
IV. Requirement gathering
Answer: a) 4, 1, 3, 2
Explanation: The sequence of activities mentioned in option c represents the Fourth Generation Techniques(4GT) Model.
15) Which of the following is an example of Black Box and Functional Processing?
Answer: d) Fourth Generation Language
Explanation: Functional processing or testing is commonly known as black-box testing, where the existing contents are almost unknown, so anything could be demonstrated as a black box. Hence the functionality of a black box can be defined in terms of inputs and outputs.
16) __________ is identified as fourth generation language.
Answer: a) Unix shell
Explanation: Fourth-generation language is an advancement of third-generation programming language.
17) The productivity of a software engineer can be reduced by using a 4GT.
Answer: b) False
Explanation: The fourth-generation programming languages are more programmer-friendly and helpful in augmenting the program's efficiency as it uses English words and phrases. It increases the programmer's productivity by enabling them to engage in the software development life cycle.
18) Which of the following is the main advantage of deploying a 4GT model for producing small-scale products, programs, and applications?
Answer: b) Time required for developing software is reduced.
Explanation: Since automated coding is done using CASE tools & code generators, proponents claim a dramatic reduction in software development time.
19) Which of the following model has a major downfall to a software development life cycle in terms of the coding phase?
Answer: a) 4GT Model
Explanation: Much more expertise is needed in the 4GT model for analyzing, designing, and testing activities as it eliminates the coding phase.
20) Which of the following falls under the category of software products?
Answer: c) Customized, Generic
Explanation: Customized and Generic are two kinds of software products.
21) Software maintenance costs are expensive in contrast to software development.
Answer: a) True
Explanation: For systems with long life, software maintenance cost is higher than that of the software development cost.
22) Which of the following activities of the generic process framework delivers a feedback report?
Answer: a) Deployment
Explanation: The deployment phase is the last phase of the software development life cycle in which the software product is delivered to its end-user, who further assesses its performance and revert back with the feedback if anything is required or missing as per the formulated evaluation.
23) Which of the following refers to internal software equality?
Answer: b) Reusability
24) RUP is abbreviated as __________, invented by a division of __________.
Answer: a) Rational Unified Process, IBM
25) The RUP can be defined based on three main perspectives, i.e., static, dynamic & practice. What is the purpose of static perspective?
Answer: b) It displays all the enacted process activities.
26) Which one of the following activities is not recommended for software processes in software engineering?
Answer: b) Software Verification
Explanation: Software verification is mainly considered for implementing and testing activities.
27) Arrange the following activities to form a general software engineering process model.
Answer: a) 6, 5, 1, 3, 4, 2
28) The agile software development model is built based on __________.
Answer: d) Both Incremental and Iterative Development
Explanation: In agile software development, the software is usually developed in increments with the customer specifying necessary requirements in each increment. Here the main aim of a developer is to meet customer satisfaction at the earliest by providing a valuable software product. It is known as iterative because it chooses to work on one particular increment and make the improvement in other iteration.
29) On what basis is plan-driven development different from that of the software development process?
Answer: a) Based on the iterations that occurred within the activities.
Explanation: In software engineering, a plan-driven approach is based on several development stages that result in the output at each of these stages, which are already planned in advance.
30) Which of the following activities is not applicable to agile software development?
Answer: c) Abolishing the project planning and testing.
Explanation: Testing can never be avoided as it plays a significant role in the software development life cycle.
31) Which of the following framework activities are carried out in Adaptive Software Development (ASD)?
Answer: a) Assumption, Association, Learning
Explanation: An Adaptive Software Development approach is an empirical process control model, which is based on observations. It continuously adjusts the design of the solution and the process involved to create the solution based on observation throughout the project.
32) The __________ model helps in representing the system's dynamic behavior.
Answer: c) Behavioral Model
Explanation: To represent the system's dynamic behavior, Behavioral models are used. The behavioral model is modeled from the perspective of the system's processed data or the events that stimulate responses from a system.
33) Model-driven engineering is nothing but a theoretical concept. It can never be transmuted into a working/executable code.
Answer: b) False
Explanation: Model-driven engineering is a software development approach that represents the system as a set model, which can be easily altered into an executable code.
34) The __________ and __________ are the two major dimensions encompassed in the Spiral model.
Answer: d) Radial, Angular
Explanation: The cumulative cost is represented by the radial dimension, whereas the angular dimension represents the progress made in the completion of each consecutive cycle. Each loop in the spiral model depicts the phase.
35) Which of the following technique is involved in certifying the sustained development of legacy systems?
Answer: d) Reverse engineering and Reengineering
Explanation: The process involved in certifying the sustained development of legacy systems relies on Reverse engineering and Reengineering.
36) An erroneous system state that results in an unexpected system behavior is acknowledged as?
Answer: c) System error
37) What is the name of the approach that follows step-by-step instructions for solving a problem?
Answer: a) An Algorithm
Explanation: An algorithm is a precise step-by-step technique that takes an input instance (of the given problem) as input(s) and produces output for the problem instance.
38) Which of the following word correctly summarized the importance of software design?
Answer: a) Quality
Explanation: The quality of a functional software functional depicts how well it can conform with or adapts to a given design based on functional requirements or specifications.
39) Which of the following methodology results in SA/SD features?
Answer: d) All of the above
40) __________ is not considered as an activity of Structured Analysis (SA).
Answer: c) All the functions represented in the DFD are mapped to a module structure
Explanation: The module structure depicts the architecture of the software.
41) What does a directed arc or line signify?
Answer: a) Data Flow
Explanation: In the business information system, the data flow diagram is used to epitomize the flow of the data.
42) What does a data store symbol in the Data Flow Diagram signify?
Answer: d) All of the above
Explanation: A logical file can be a data structure or physical file on the disk or vice versa.
43) __________ is not a direct measure of SE process.
Answer: c) Efficiency
Explanation: Efficiency can never be measured as it is an indirect measure of the SE process.
44) What is the main task of project indicators?
Answer: a) To evaluate the ongoing project's status and track possible risks.
45) What is the main intent of project metrics?
Answer: d) To minimize the development schedule and evaluate the ongoing project's quality on a daily basis
Explanation: A project metric refers to a quantifiable measure of the degree to which a system, component, or process owns a certain trait.
46) Name the graphical practice that depicts the meaningful changes that occurred in metrics data.
Answer: c) Control Chart
Explanation: A control chart is a method used to keep track of the variability of traits of interest.
47) Which parameters are essentially used while computing the software development cost?
Answer: d) All of the above
Explanation: Estimation cost works out on assessing the amount of effort required to complete each activity, followed by calculating the total cost of activities.
48) Which of the following is an incorrect activity for the configuration management of a software system?
Answer: c) Internship management
Explanation: Configuration management policies and processes define how to record, and process proposed system changes, how to decide what system components to change, how to manage different versions of the system and its components, and how to distribute changes to customers.
49) The project planner examines the statement of scope and extracts all-important software functions, which is known as
Answer: b) Decomposition
50) Which of the following Is not considered as an option for achieving reliable cost and effort estimation?
Answer: a) The ability to translate the size estimate into human effort, calendar time, and dollars
51) Which of the following does not complement the decomposition techniques but offers a potential estimation approach for their impersonal growth?
Answer: a) Empirical estimation models
Explanation: In computer software, the estimation model uses empirically derived formulas for guessing the effort as a function of LOC or FP.
52) Which of the following is not included in the total effort cost?
Answer: a) Costs of lunch time food
Explanation: Employees incur it in the office.
53) What is developed by utilizing the historical cost function?
Answer: c) Algorithmic cost modeling
Explanation: The algorithmic cost modeling utilizes the basic regression formula with such parameters that have been derived from the data of a historical project and current as well as characteristics of a future project.
54) Which of the following model has a misconception that systems are built by utilizing reusable components, scripts, and database programs?
Answer: c) An application-composition model
Explanation: An application-composition model evaluates the development of a prototype.
55) Which of the following is used to predict the effort as a function of LOC or FP?
Answer: c) Both COCOMO and FP-based estimation
Explanation: Both COCOMO and FP-based estimation is used to calculate the effort by utilizing the empirically derived formulas.
56) Once the requirements are stabilized, the basic architecture of the software can be established. Which of the following version of the COCOMO model conforms to the given statement?
Answer: a) Application composition model
57) Which of the following threatens the quality and timeliness of the produced software?
Answer: c) Technical risks
Explanation: Technical risks detect the possible design, enactment, interface, authentication, and preservation problems.
58) Which of the following refers to the systematic attempt, which is implemented to ascertain the threats to any project plan?
Answer: c) Risk projection
Explanation: Once the risks are identified, the project manager takes his first step to avoid them when required and control them.
59) Which of the following standards is used by the aviation industry?
Answer: b) RTCADO-178B
Explanation: RTCADO-178B is the most popular aviation standard, which has been altered to a defacto standard.
60) Third-Party Certification for software standards is based on __________.
Answer: b) Ul 1998, Second Edition